The Bible indicates the Pre-Tribulation Rapture event is God's plan to remove His people out of harm's way prior to Him unleashing His 21-judgments upon the inhabitants of the Earth.
I do appreciate that you have taken time to comment, but it appears from the articles you have on your Substack blog, that you have thoroughly convinced yourself about your own beliefs in the same manner as I have found the Seventh Day Adventists (SDA's).
I make this statement because I doubt you watched either of my two videos, and I doubt you fully read my article before you commented. Is that correct, Scot?
In other words, I would have expected you to 'Comment' on some of the issues I had presented in my article or in my videos; however, (like all SDA's who commented on my videos) they avoided the issues I had raised by posting aspects of their own Post-Tribulation beliefs that have no relation to my videos or what I described.
In the article on your Substack page titled, ‘What about the Rapture?’ you refer to Dr. Andy Woods as if he is the sole individual within the Christian community whose views represent every other Christian who believes in a Pre-Tribulation Rapture. From the comments you made about Dr. Woods in your article, I TOTALLY DISAGREE WITH WHAT HE SAYS ABOUT THE RAPTURE.
From what I have read of your Substack articles titled, ‘What about the Rapture?’ and ‘A basic guide to the end-times’; I totally DISAGREE with your conclusions.
This is because your understanding of end-times comes from your study of books written by scholars rather than you reading the literal words of scripture (King James Bible) and allowing God to personally teach you the things He wants you to know through study of the scriptures with His guidance (John 6:45 KJV).
If you care to discuss this matter further, I’m happy to do this on the following conditions:
1. You watch my 40-minute video, ‘The Pre-Tribulation Rapture – Fully Explained’ through to the end.
2. You ask me at least 1 question in relation to the video OR make a comment as to what you liked/disliked about it.
3. You then answer me the following questions:
2.a. Genesis 18:24-32 refers to “The Lord” coming to Abraham prior to Him visiting the cities of Sodom and Gomorrah. In this dialog, Abraham asks the Lord:
“That be far from thee to do after this manner, TO SLAY THE RIGHTEOUS WITH THE WICKED: and that THE RIGHTEOUS SHOULD BE AS THE WICKED, that be far from thee: Shall not the Judge of all the earth do right? 26 And the Lord said, If I find in Sodom fifty righteous within the city, then I will spare all the place for their sakes.” (Genesis 18:25-26)
If we accept that God never tells a lie (Numbers 23:19) AND that He removed Lot and his family prior to sending brimstone and fire upon the cities of Sodom and Gomorrah, we have to believe that the Lord will NOT “...slay the righteous with the wicked: and that the righteous should be (NOT be treated) as the wicked” still remains in effect today.
QUESTION: Where does it say in the Bible that God (or ‘The Lord’) has since changed this edict above to now mean that He will (in the future Tribulation) impose His 21-Seal, Trumpet and Vial judgments upon ALL people as you so claim—meaning the following groups will have to endure the 7-year Tribulation period:
—The genuine saints within Christianity (Rev 14:12; John 14:15)
—The remainder of the Christian church (i.e. cults, orthodox, protestant, etc.)
—The ruling class of evil men (i.e. politicians, bankers, lawyers, etc.)
—Ordinary (unsaved) men and women who reject Jesus Christ (1 Cor. 5:12-13).
2.b. In 2 Thes 2, there is reference to “THE MYSTERY OF INIQUITY”; “HE WHO NOW LETTETH WILL LET” and “UNTIL HE BE TAKEN OUT OF THE WAY”.
My explanation of who the interpretation of the MYSTERY and the two HE’s is shown below. My question follows.
"THE MYSTERY OF INIQUITY mentioned in 2 Thes. 2:6 refers to the Spirit of Lawlessness that is evident throughout the world today - both within and outside the churches.
"HE WHO NOW LETTETH WILL LET mentioned in 2 Thes. 2:7 is the "HE" who refers to the Holy Spirit withholding evil from spreading forth throughout the Earth.
"UNTIL HE BE TAKEN OUT OF THE WAY mentioned in 2 Thes. 2:7 is the "HE" who refers to the spiritual members of the Body of Christ (1 Cor 12) that includes the dead in Christ in the dust of the Earth and "we who are alive and remain".
QUESTION: The phrase “UNTIL HE BE TAKEN OUT OF THE WAY” refers to God’s people on Earth who have established a personal relationship with God as referred to in John 10:27, John 6:45. For those Christians who have NOT established a personal relationship with Jesus— He identifies these individuals in Matthew 7:23 (KJV).
How then do you explain the phrase, “UNTIL HE BE TAKEN OUT OF THE WAY” – if not in the Pre-Tribulation Rapture?
If you can give me answers to the above questions, I am happy to discuss this matter further with you, Scot.
Sorry. I can't go with a pre-trib rapture: it's just not anywhere in Scripture, and the ONLY direct references to our rapture are explicitly after Tribulation.
The Abomination of Desolation is clearly the Dome of the Rock and Al Aqsa mosque. It's the only event that actually fits Daniel's time-frame as required by Jesus, AND it starts the desolation, which is the fulfillment of Revelation 12, where Israel flees the land and leaves the mount desolate. The persecution by Islam is so great and expansive, nothing has equaled it as Jesus said.
A few years ago I started writing this in more detail once I realised that this was known at the time that it was the fulfillment of Daniel's prophecy, but that the pre-trib theorists have rejected. I've started transfering this to a substack, if you're interested. https://eotwawki.substack.com/p/home
I grew up learning about the pre-trib rapture, but I cannot find it anywhere in the Bible.
Thanks for taking the time to comment and sorry for the delay in responding.
There are a considerable number of Christians today who are embracing and promoting the POST-Tribulation rapture belief. From memory, the Seventh Day Adventists and the Jehovah's Witnesses have been promoting this belief for the past century or so.
In Genesis 18 - where the Lord visits Abraham prior to Him bringing destruction upon the cities of Sodom and Gomorrah, he assures Abraham that He will NOT judge the righteous (i.e. His people) with the wicked (i.e. Satan's people). This means there has to be a separate judgment for the RIGHTEOUS and for the WICKED. These two judgments are spoken of in the Bible:
- The Righteous (After the Rapture in heaven - Rev 19:5-9; and later for rewards -1 Cor 3:12-15)
- The Wicked (Rev 20:11-15)
I produced a YouTube video that reveals TEN aspects the Bible reveals about the Pre-Tribulation Rapture. Maybe you might care to view this and then tell me if you still have some concerns.
I don't see tribulation, or distress as Jesus calls it in Matt 24, as "judgement" in the way you are describing it.
The wicked do go through judgement, but it is after the return of Christ, in the verses you cited. So the "tribulation" you're representing here, isn't judgement.
"I don't see tribulation, or distress as Jesus calls it in Matt 24, as "judgement"..."
The 'Tribulation' and the two 'Judgments' I referred to are two entirely different things or events, Frank. To quote from https://www.gotquestions.org/tribulation.html - these people offer the following statement that demonstrates the Tribulation is a specific event, which is separate from the judgments of the Righteous and the Wicked as I described previously:
QUOTE
"Throughout Scripture, the tribulation is associated with the day of the Lord, that time during which God personally intervenes in history to accomplish His plan (see Isaiah 2:12; 13:6–9; Joel 1:15; 2:1–31; 3:14; 1 Thessalonians 5:2). It is referred to as “tribulation . . . in the latter days” (Deuteronomy 4:30, ESV); the great tribulation, which refers to the more intense second half of the seven-year period (Matthew 24:21); “a time of distress” (Daniel 12:1); and “the time of Jacob’s trouble” (Jeremiah 30:7, NKJV). And we have this description of the tribulation that attends the day of the Lord:
“That day will be a day of wrath— a day of distress and anguish, a day of trouble and ruin, a day of darkness and gloom, a day of clouds and blackness— a day of trumpet and battle cry” (Zephaniah 1:15–16).
The tribulation will be marked by various divine judgments, celestial disturbances, natural disasters, and terrible plagues (see Revelation 6—16). In His mercy, God sets a limit on the duration of the tribulation. As Jesus said, “Those will be days of distress unequaled from the beginning, when God created the world, until now—and never to be equaled again. If the Lord had not cut short those days, no one would survive” (Mark 13:19–20)."
UNQUOTE
If you disagree here that the Tribulation is a unique period of calamity upon the inhabitants of the world, maybe you might care to elaborate a little more on any concerns you may still have.
You say it's not judgement and then you say it is judgement. I think you're conflating things because they share a small subset of attributes. Matthew 24:12, does not say it's in the 2nd half of anything. You, for what ever reason, have decided that it is. Likewise for pretty much most of the references you cite. Whereas, the passages that do specifically mention tribulation and give a time reference, say that Jesus returns after the tribulation, or that we are gathered to him, after tribulation. Jesus says that we will have tribulation (Jn 16:33). All the dancing around to put the rapture before the Tribulation is to avoid the fact there is not a single passage that says clearly or hints at a pre-tribulation rapture, while we're told we will be raptured after Tribulation by Jesus, Paul and John. Scripture is abundantly clear Revelation 7:14 that Christians go through the great tribulation. Jesus says of the great tribulation (of which there is no equal) to pray that our flight will not be on a Sabbath or winter or with little ones. How can this be if we are raptured before hand. These are ultra clear references to the great tribulation and that Christians go through it, and also show a rapture AFTER the tribulation, that one has to wonder why so much effort is expended to argue for a pre-tribulation rapture.
The Abomination of Desolation, is the Dome of the Rock. It is the only one that fits Daniel's prophectic timeframe. It is what causes the woman to flee Israel and leave the land desolate (Rev 12). Israel returns after 1260 years, fulfilling Revelation 12 and the 42 months of Revelation 13. Christians, ignorant of the extent and brutality of the Islamic empire, think while it was bad, it' still has to have it's equal (which Jesus says it won't). Tamerlane, a single Islamic ruler killed 5% of the entire world's population. The murdered, tortured, ate, burned, buried, fed to wild animals, raped, and did unspeakable acts, for over 1000 years, and was only stopped from fulfilling the full 1260 years because of WW1, when it had a fatal wound. Even immediately before it's fatal wound, it slaughtered 1.5 million Armenians in 1915. The widespread devastation of the Islamic empire has never seen its equal, and since it was the great tribulation, thankfully, the world never will again. Israel returned after 1260 years of desolation. Meaning Christians are now in the same chapter of the mark of the beast.
Thanks for responding to my comments Frank - but I doubt if we can ever come to an agreement. This is because where the Bible says "days", you change it to say "years" - meaning, you are calling both God and the Bible liars!
On what basis do you have the right to change the words in the Bible to say what you want them to say, Frank? Do you place your own words above that of God and of those recorded in the Bible?
As an example of this, you say:
"Israel returned after 1260 years of desolation"
You are ignoring the fact that:
• Each month in Israel's calendar is 30 days
• Forty-two (42) Jewish months equals 1,260 days (30 x 42 = 1,260).
• In Daniel's 70-Weeks Prophecy, he mentions "...the daily sacrifice shall be taken away, and the abomination that maketh desolate set up, there shall be A THOUSAND TWO HUNDRED AND NINETY DAYS" in Daniel 12:11.
My point here is that you conveniently and without any Biblical justification change the 1,260 days mentioned in scripture to be "1260 years" - yet you ignore the 1,290 day reference and the "...time, times and dividing of time" (referring to the 1,260 days referred to in Daniel 7:25) - together with the Bible relating exactly to the Jewish Calendar.
Unless you confess and repent from calling both God and the Bible liars, I can't see me discussing this matter any further with you Frank.
I have explained why the 1290 days should be understood as days, and the examples of Biblical precedence for it both within the chapter, book, and other examples in Scripture where God himself says as much. It is fascinating that you regard the days as hyper literal, but not the fact that Jesus says (A) that we go through tribulation and (B) our gathering to him is after the tribulation. If I have not explained sufficiently clearly why these should be understood as years, please refer me to the section that is causing you the greatest issue re: clarity, and I'll be happy to address the lack of clarity.
I assume you believe that Jesus cannot be the Messiah because Elijah did not come first, and we do not call Jesus, emmanuel, or everlasting father. But if you do accept Jesus is the Messiah, you are very selective in your hyperliteralism.
I have not at all over looked a 360 day calendar, but to call it Jewish is a misnomer as they did not strictly have a 360 day calendar. I have addressed this and shown for the 1290 days it doesn't matter whether a solar calendar is used, a 360-calendar, or a babylonian-jewish 354/384 calendar is used. Regardless of which calendar used, they arrive at the Dome of the Rock/Al Aqsa mosque. I repeated this, with examples, ad nauseam. I thought I harped on this too much, clearly I did not do it enough.
To be very short and simple here:
Daniel's 1290 days/years occurs between the ceasing of the sacrifice, and the abomination of desolation as explained by the angel. The 1260 days/years of Revelation 12 occurs from the abomination of desolation to the end of the time of the gentiles. And I've shown that this is true, regardless of the calendar system.
So, despite your assertion that I have forgotten these time periods, to the contrary, I have dedicated several pages to these different time spans.
People who reject that the Dome of the Rock/Al Asqa mosque are the abomination of desolation are either a/post-millennial, or pre-tribulationists wanting to see the Dome of the Rock destroyed so a 3rd temple can be built so the "antichrist" will stand in the temple of God, declaring himself to be god. These people do not understand what the Dome and mosque are and what they literally declare to the world, nor of the persecution of Christians and Jews that followed. They want to destroy one abomination, so that another can stand in its place. It is being blinded to what is in front of their faces.
Hello Scot,
I do appreciate that you have taken time to comment, but it appears from the articles you have on your Substack blog, that you have thoroughly convinced yourself about your own beliefs in the same manner as I have found the Seventh Day Adventists (SDA's).
I make this statement because I doubt you watched either of my two videos, and I doubt you fully read my article before you commented. Is that correct, Scot?
In other words, I would have expected you to 'Comment' on some of the issues I had presented in my article or in my videos; however, (like all SDA's who commented on my videos) they avoided the issues I had raised by posting aspects of their own Post-Tribulation beliefs that have no relation to my videos or what I described.
In the article on your Substack page titled, ‘What about the Rapture?’ you refer to Dr. Andy Woods as if he is the sole individual within the Christian community whose views represent every other Christian who believes in a Pre-Tribulation Rapture. From the comments you made about Dr. Woods in your article, I TOTALLY DISAGREE WITH WHAT HE SAYS ABOUT THE RAPTURE.
From what I have read of your Substack articles titled, ‘What about the Rapture?’ and ‘A basic guide to the end-times’; I totally DISAGREE with your conclusions.
This is because your understanding of end-times comes from your study of books written by scholars rather than you reading the literal words of scripture (King James Bible) and allowing God to personally teach you the things He wants you to know through study of the scriptures with His guidance (John 6:45 KJV).
If you care to discuss this matter further, I’m happy to do this on the following conditions:
1. You watch my 40-minute video, ‘The Pre-Tribulation Rapture – Fully Explained’ through to the end.
2. You ask me at least 1 question in relation to the video OR make a comment as to what you liked/disliked about it.
3. You then answer me the following questions:
2.a. Genesis 18:24-32 refers to “The Lord” coming to Abraham prior to Him visiting the cities of Sodom and Gomorrah. In this dialog, Abraham asks the Lord:
“That be far from thee to do after this manner, TO SLAY THE RIGHTEOUS WITH THE WICKED: and that THE RIGHTEOUS SHOULD BE AS THE WICKED, that be far from thee: Shall not the Judge of all the earth do right? 26 And the Lord said, If I find in Sodom fifty righteous within the city, then I will spare all the place for their sakes.” (Genesis 18:25-26)
If we accept that God never tells a lie (Numbers 23:19) AND that He removed Lot and his family prior to sending brimstone and fire upon the cities of Sodom and Gomorrah, we have to believe that the Lord will NOT “...slay the righteous with the wicked: and that the righteous should be (NOT be treated) as the wicked” still remains in effect today.
QUESTION: Where does it say in the Bible that God (or ‘The Lord’) has since changed this edict above to now mean that He will (in the future Tribulation) impose His 21-Seal, Trumpet and Vial judgments upon ALL people as you so claim—meaning the following groups will have to endure the 7-year Tribulation period:
—The genuine saints within Christianity (Rev 14:12; John 14:15)
—The remainder of the Christian church (i.e. cults, orthodox, protestant, etc.)
—The ruling class of evil men (i.e. politicians, bankers, lawyers, etc.)
—Ordinary (unsaved) men and women who reject Jesus Christ (1 Cor. 5:12-13).
2.b. In 2 Thes 2, there is reference to “THE MYSTERY OF INIQUITY”; “HE WHO NOW LETTETH WILL LET” and “UNTIL HE BE TAKEN OUT OF THE WAY”.
My explanation of who the interpretation of the MYSTERY and the two HE’s is shown below. My question follows.
"THE MYSTERY OF INIQUITY mentioned in 2 Thes. 2:6 refers to the Spirit of Lawlessness that is evident throughout the world today - both within and outside the churches.
"HE WHO NOW LETTETH WILL LET mentioned in 2 Thes. 2:7 is the "HE" who refers to the Holy Spirit withholding evil from spreading forth throughout the Earth.
"UNTIL HE BE TAKEN OUT OF THE WAY mentioned in 2 Thes. 2:7 is the "HE" who refers to the spiritual members of the Body of Christ (1 Cor 12) that includes the dead in Christ in the dust of the Earth and "we who are alive and remain".
QUESTION: The phrase “UNTIL HE BE TAKEN OUT OF THE WAY” refers to God’s people on Earth who have established a personal relationship with God as referred to in John 10:27, John 6:45. For those Christians who have NOT established a personal relationship with Jesus— He identifies these individuals in Matthew 7:23 (KJV).
How then do you explain the phrase, “UNTIL HE BE TAKEN OUT OF THE WAY” – if not in the Pre-Tribulation Rapture?
If you can give me answers to the above questions, I am happy to discuss this matter further with you, Scot.
Blessings, Alan
Sorry. I can't go with a pre-trib rapture: it's just not anywhere in Scripture, and the ONLY direct references to our rapture are explicitly after Tribulation.
The Abomination of Desolation is clearly the Dome of the Rock and Al Aqsa mosque. It's the only event that actually fits Daniel's time-frame as required by Jesus, AND it starts the desolation, which is the fulfillment of Revelation 12, where Israel flees the land and leaves the mount desolate. The persecution by Islam is so great and expansive, nothing has equaled it as Jesus said.
A few years ago I started writing this in more detail once I realised that this was known at the time that it was the fulfillment of Daniel's prophecy, but that the pre-trib theorists have rejected. I've started transfering this to a substack, if you're interested. https://eotwawki.substack.com/p/home
I grew up learning about the pre-trib rapture, but I cannot find it anywhere in the Bible.
Hi Frank,
Thanks for taking the time to comment and sorry for the delay in responding.
There are a considerable number of Christians today who are embracing and promoting the POST-Tribulation rapture belief. From memory, the Seventh Day Adventists and the Jehovah's Witnesses have been promoting this belief for the past century or so.
In Genesis 18 - where the Lord visits Abraham prior to Him bringing destruction upon the cities of Sodom and Gomorrah, he assures Abraham that He will NOT judge the righteous (i.e. His people) with the wicked (i.e. Satan's people). This means there has to be a separate judgment for the RIGHTEOUS and for the WICKED. These two judgments are spoken of in the Bible:
- The Righteous (After the Rapture in heaven - Rev 19:5-9; and later for rewards -1 Cor 3:12-15)
- The Wicked (Rev 20:11-15)
I produced a YouTube video that reveals TEN aspects the Bible reveals about the Pre-Tribulation Rapture. Maybe you might care to view this and then tell me if you still have some concerns.
Blessings, Frank. https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=1C3blTCbFqU
I don't see tribulation, or distress as Jesus calls it in Matt 24, as "judgement" in the way you are describing it.
The wicked do go through judgement, but it is after the return of Christ, in the verses you cited. So the "tribulation" you're representing here, isn't judgement.
So Frank - you say:
"I don't see tribulation, or distress as Jesus calls it in Matt 24, as "judgement"..."
The 'Tribulation' and the two 'Judgments' I referred to are two entirely different things or events, Frank. To quote from https://www.gotquestions.org/tribulation.html - these people offer the following statement that demonstrates the Tribulation is a specific event, which is separate from the judgments of the Righteous and the Wicked as I described previously:
QUOTE
"Throughout Scripture, the tribulation is associated with the day of the Lord, that time during which God personally intervenes in history to accomplish His plan (see Isaiah 2:12; 13:6–9; Joel 1:15; 2:1–31; 3:14; 1 Thessalonians 5:2). It is referred to as “tribulation . . . in the latter days” (Deuteronomy 4:30, ESV); the great tribulation, which refers to the more intense second half of the seven-year period (Matthew 24:21); “a time of distress” (Daniel 12:1); and “the time of Jacob’s trouble” (Jeremiah 30:7, NKJV). And we have this description of the tribulation that attends the day of the Lord:
“That day will be a day of wrath— a day of distress and anguish, a day of trouble and ruin, a day of darkness and gloom, a day of clouds and blackness— a day of trumpet and battle cry” (Zephaniah 1:15–16).
The tribulation will be marked by various divine judgments, celestial disturbances, natural disasters, and terrible plagues (see Revelation 6—16). In His mercy, God sets a limit on the duration of the tribulation. As Jesus said, “Those will be days of distress unequaled from the beginning, when God created the world, until now—and never to be equaled again. If the Lord had not cut short those days, no one would survive” (Mark 13:19–20)."
UNQUOTE
If you disagree here that the Tribulation is a unique period of calamity upon the inhabitants of the world, maybe you might care to elaborate a little more on any concerns you may still have.
Blessings, Frank.
You say it's not judgement and then you say it is judgement. I think you're conflating things because they share a small subset of attributes. Matthew 24:12, does not say it's in the 2nd half of anything. You, for what ever reason, have decided that it is. Likewise for pretty much most of the references you cite. Whereas, the passages that do specifically mention tribulation and give a time reference, say that Jesus returns after the tribulation, or that we are gathered to him, after tribulation. Jesus says that we will have tribulation (Jn 16:33). All the dancing around to put the rapture before the Tribulation is to avoid the fact there is not a single passage that says clearly or hints at a pre-tribulation rapture, while we're told we will be raptured after Tribulation by Jesus, Paul and John. Scripture is abundantly clear Revelation 7:14 that Christians go through the great tribulation. Jesus says of the great tribulation (of which there is no equal) to pray that our flight will not be on a Sabbath or winter or with little ones. How can this be if we are raptured before hand. These are ultra clear references to the great tribulation and that Christians go through it, and also show a rapture AFTER the tribulation, that one has to wonder why so much effort is expended to argue for a pre-tribulation rapture.
The Abomination of Desolation, is the Dome of the Rock. It is the only one that fits Daniel's prophectic timeframe. It is what causes the woman to flee Israel and leave the land desolate (Rev 12). Israel returns after 1260 years, fulfilling Revelation 12 and the 42 months of Revelation 13. Christians, ignorant of the extent and brutality of the Islamic empire, think while it was bad, it' still has to have it's equal (which Jesus says it won't). Tamerlane, a single Islamic ruler killed 5% of the entire world's population. The murdered, tortured, ate, burned, buried, fed to wild animals, raped, and did unspeakable acts, for over 1000 years, and was only stopped from fulfilling the full 1260 years because of WW1, when it had a fatal wound. Even immediately before it's fatal wound, it slaughtered 1.5 million Armenians in 1915. The widespread devastation of the Islamic empire has never seen its equal, and since it was the great tribulation, thankfully, the world never will again. Israel returned after 1260 years of desolation. Meaning Christians are now in the same chapter of the mark of the beast.
Thanks for responding to my comments Frank - but I doubt if we can ever come to an agreement. This is because where the Bible says "days", you change it to say "years" - meaning, you are calling both God and the Bible liars!
On what basis do you have the right to change the words in the Bible to say what you want them to say, Frank? Do you place your own words above that of God and of those recorded in the Bible?
As an example of this, you say:
"Israel returned after 1260 years of desolation"
You are ignoring the fact that:
• Each month in Israel's calendar is 30 days
• Forty-two (42) Jewish months equals 1,260 days (30 x 42 = 1,260).
• In Daniel's 70-Weeks Prophecy, he mentions "...the daily sacrifice shall be taken away, and the abomination that maketh desolate set up, there shall be A THOUSAND TWO HUNDRED AND NINETY DAYS" in Daniel 12:11.
My point here is that you conveniently and without any Biblical justification change the 1,260 days mentioned in scripture to be "1260 years" - yet you ignore the 1,290 day reference and the "...time, times and dividing of time" (referring to the 1,260 days referred to in Daniel 7:25) - together with the Bible relating exactly to the Jewish Calendar.
Unless you confess and repent from calling both God and the Bible liars, I can't see me discussing this matter any further with you Frank.
I have explained why the 1290 days should be understood as days, and the examples of Biblical precedence for it both within the chapter, book, and other examples in Scripture where God himself says as much. It is fascinating that you regard the days as hyper literal, but not the fact that Jesus says (A) that we go through tribulation and (B) our gathering to him is after the tribulation. If I have not explained sufficiently clearly why these should be understood as years, please refer me to the section that is causing you the greatest issue re: clarity, and I'll be happy to address the lack of clarity.
I assume you believe that Jesus cannot be the Messiah because Elijah did not come first, and we do not call Jesus, emmanuel, or everlasting father. But if you do accept Jesus is the Messiah, you are very selective in your hyperliteralism.
I have not at all over looked a 360 day calendar, but to call it Jewish is a misnomer as they did not strictly have a 360 day calendar. I have addressed this and shown for the 1290 days it doesn't matter whether a solar calendar is used, a 360-calendar, or a babylonian-jewish 354/384 calendar is used. Regardless of which calendar used, they arrive at the Dome of the Rock/Al Aqsa mosque. I repeated this, with examples, ad nauseam. I thought I harped on this too much, clearly I did not do it enough.
To be very short and simple here:
Daniel's 1290 days/years occurs between the ceasing of the sacrifice, and the abomination of desolation as explained by the angel. The 1260 days/years of Revelation 12 occurs from the abomination of desolation to the end of the time of the gentiles. And I've shown that this is true, regardless of the calendar system.
So, despite your assertion that I have forgotten these time periods, to the contrary, I have dedicated several pages to these different time spans.
People who reject that the Dome of the Rock/Al Asqa mosque are the abomination of desolation are either a/post-millennial, or pre-tribulationists wanting to see the Dome of the Rock destroyed so a 3rd temple can be built so the "antichrist" will stand in the temple of God, declaring himself to be god. These people do not understand what the Dome and mosque are and what they literally declare to the world, nor of the persecution of Christians and Jews that followed. They want to destroy one abomination, so that another can stand in its place. It is being blinded to what is in front of their faces.